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Hi, thank you for your question. Was there a court approved financial settlement as part of their divorce?
Are you able to attach the court order using the paperclip icon please?
Hi, this question remains open. Please could you provide the requested information so that I can assist you.
Thank you for confirming Paragraph 1 is clear in that they hold the property in equal shares (ie. 50% each). Given that she has now remarried the determining event as outlined in paragraph 1(b) (iii) takes effect and the property should have been sold upon her remarriage.
Furthermore, paragraph 1(f) creates a liability for her to pay him occupation rent if she has remained in the property for 3 months after her remarriage - such occupation rent to be agreed between them or determined by the court if there is no agreement.
Unfortunately, despite your contributions to the property you have no legal interest in it and your contributions do not create a share of the property.
This is further complicated by the fact that it is your new matrimonial home with her, but her ex-husband would still be entitled to 50% of the equity as outlined in the order.
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