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Ash
Ash, Solicitor
Category: Law
Satisfied Customers: 10916
Experience:  Solicitor with 5+ years experience
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A business was sold, for £2 million to a son and his friend.

Resolved Question:

Dear Sir/Madam
A business was sold, for £2 million to a son and his friend. The sale process, took over 7 months to complete, yet was supposed to take 1 month. A quick written agreement was made with the buyers.
However after 3 years, the one of the buyers, father is claiming he is owed commission on the sale price, as it was agreed verbally, with the one of the seller, who has died, and he is claiming it against his wife. At no stage during the sale period of 7 months, did the claimant mention to anyone about this, including his own son. The seller who died, never mentioned this to his wife or his accountant who was dealing with this sale.
So the only people, aware of this so called verbal agreement, is the claimant, while the other party is dead.
So is their a verbal agreement ?
Submitted: 1 year ago.
Category: Law
Expert:  Ash replied 1 year ago.

Hello my name is ***** ***** I will help you.

How much are we talking in commission please?

Customer: replied 1 year ago.
163;40,000
Expert:  Ash replied 1 year ago.

Is there a verbal agreement - yes there is.

Agreements can be verbal or in writing.

So yes there is a verbal agreement. Whether it can still stand is a matter of evidence, given that one party is dead.

Can I clarify anything for you about this today please?

Customer: replied 1 year ago.
Well the accountant handled, all the matters of sale with the buyers and the solicitors.
The seller and his wife never mentioned, any commission issue at any stage.
Neither did the buyers, nor did the father of one of the buyers, at any stage.
The seller died, and then the father, comes out with this commission issue, he states that he agreed with the dead person. There is no written agreement, nor is their a third party who can verify this "verbal agreement ".
So on what basis can he claim, that there was an agreement. ?
Expert:  Ash replied 1 year ago.

Yes I can't see how it can.

You asked if there was a verbal agreement, the answer is yes.

Providing evidence of it is going to be hard if no one witnessed it

Does that clarify?

Customer: replied 1 year ago.
it does, and I truly appreciate your effort and answers from legal point of view.
Expert:  Ash replied 1 year ago.

Happy to assist. If this answers your question could I invite you to rate my answer before you go today, otherwise the site doesn’t pay me for the time spent with you. Thanks in advance and good luck.

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