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Hello for clarification how long have you been together in total?
he paid towards the mortgage and bills? decorating or improving the property?
I’m assuming that you have no children together.
You have lived together for 2 years and therefore, he may be in a position to claim a financial interest in the property if he can prove that he has contributed to the equity in the property.
Indirect payments for food can possibly be taken into account because they release money for you to pay to the house but it’s more difficult to account for those.
Asking him to leave on the other hand is relatively straightforward. He is a lodger and you are entitled to ask him to leave on reasonable notice and he doesn’t move out after say one month, lock him out and give him his belongings back.
Ownership of the dogs can result in quite an argument depending on who paid for them and whose name the chip is registered in because neither is proof of ownership.
When you say that the house has no market value, I assume you mean that if it was sold, by the time the mortgage was paid off, there would be no money. If that’s the case, then his claim is a share of nothing.
Don’t be at all surprised however if he alleges that the house is worth more than it is.
That is correct. Not being married makes a world of difference to financial liability and basically brings it down to just child maintenance.
I’m sorry, I know that’s not the answer you wanted but I don’t make the rules. It would be a lot different if you were married.
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