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I paid half the mortage for one year and then when back to university so paid the bills for a year and nothing towards the mortage so I have contributed very little. He has offered me £3000.
I think we are tenants in common. we purchased the house 3 years ago, the house is worth between 115,000- 125,000 and we still owe 100,000 on the mortage.
because he had put the 10% deposit down i agreed that I would not own 50% as I had not contributed to the deposit.
Sorry but I don't really know what this means. It was never mentioned in the deeds that I had not contributed to the deposite if thats what you mean?
No as I don't live there any more I have not been able to. Would it have change that much in 3 years? Even if it went for the top of what we think it is worth, would i get much more than the £3000 he has offered me once we had paid legal fees? Obviously I have not paid anything towards the house since I moved out 8 months ago, would they also take this into account?