it was a noise dipsute load music playing etc i complained to the authorities and the local council who she renteed the house. However it turn out that she was not the tenant her father was and she was minding the house however she was the tenant, i think he was subletting with out the local council knowing.
however this was 7 years ago
it was resolved the girl had a baby and she calm down with the parties.
Hence why i haddend complained for 7 year plus i rent the property out currently and no one had complained for the last 3 years.
I understood from why I last sold a property that they ask if you have had any neighbour disputes over the last 5 years, therefore i would understand from that anything over this point would be quashed?
Is that correct or would this come back and bit me after this point. I wish i had never compained in the first place and just kept quite.
To be frank, because it was sevenyears ago, I would probably disclose it but probably not for the reason thatyou think.
If you disclose a dispute fromseven years ago make it quite clear that this was settled and how it wassettled, then a buyer is more likely to believe that there have been no otherincidents (which you are keeping quiet about) meanwhile.
However, referring to the wordingof the latest property information form.
There is no longer a 5 yearperiod.
Question 2.1 your answer shouldbe, see 2.3.
2.2 should be "no" assuming thatno one has complained about you of course.
2.3 should be "yes" because thefact of the matter is that you have complained.
I would be brief and say: complaintabout noise (loud music) seven years ago, now resolved.. No incidents to my knowledgein the last three years since the neighbour had a new child.
If you are open and transparent,it can never come back and bite you.
Does that answer the question?
Can I assist further?
I am happy tofollow up any individual point you make
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