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If I am in a month to month tenancy and the landlord increases the rent verbally with no written notice, does the new rent amount have to be paid on the rent due date? If the increase in rent is not paid on the rental due date, does that invalidate any prescribed legal terms of serving a correct rent increase notice? My landlord has never increased my rent using a Section 13 or any other written notice method. Should a contract have been drawn up between the tenant and landlord to legally increase the rent and make it binding?
This is a rental agreement that was signed in England in 2006 for a fixed period of 12 months - a standard Assured Shorthold Tenancy. The tenancy expired and became a Statutory Periodic Tenancy i.e. a monthly rolling contract. The rental increases over the years have all been verbal. I want to make sure that no laws were contravened as the tenant is claiming that I did not make them aware of their rights to oppose a rent increase as I failed to serve the requisite notices.
Thanks! What about the first part of my question - if the increase in rent is not paid on the rental due date, does that invalidate any prescribed legal terms of serving a correct rent increase notice? i.e. if the rent is due on the 1st and the landlord called the tenant on the 19th to say that an increase is due immediately and the tenant pays a new rent on the 19th or 20th, how does that affect the rental agreement?