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If they agreed to an AST then it makes no difference if they have been in there since 1980's.
They have in effect given up that older tenancy
Generally they would be a regulated tenant.
But if they gave up their old tenancy and it appears they have done so by signing an AST in 2006 then they are AST tenants
Can I clarify anything for you about this today please?
That's great. So basically the AST will stand and supersede any prior agreements. Thank you.
Yes. Because they have given up their old tenancy
If they did not want to then they should not have signed a new one.
Does that help?
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