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Sorry i am struggling with this.
The story is that the property is owned by a BVI company and Mr X is claiming he is nothing to do with that company.
He also states he has no financial or personal interest in the property in any way, But I found this on the title.
So does he have a personal or financial interest in this property? If so please ignore my ignorence simple how?
I have the title deed and it is registered to the BVI,
I am trying to ascertain if Mr x does have a financial or personnel interest in the property and if so in what way.
Thank you for that so I would be safe in saying that Mr X owned the flat within two years previously of that date? As Mr X is stating he has never owned that flat.
Hi thank you ,
Hopefully you don't mind if I ask another question. I will do a new question and assign it to you