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I did assume that this question would be referred to a lawyer rather than a tax expert - do I need to do anything further to ensure I get a useful answer? It seems odd that it should have ended up being bounced off you - absolutely no disrespect intended, of course; and thank-you for taking the trouble to reply!
My father and mother divided ownership and I inherited one half of my father's share when he died. My brother has always wanted to live in the property and so has sold his house and moved in there with my mother. They feel I should simply hand over my share, and have offered me nothing from the proceeds of the sale of his house - effectively leaving me disinherited, as he has no intention of at any stage offering me anything. My mother has colluded in this, and will leave him her entire share when she dies.
I don't know - but that is certainly the basis on which we would interpret his/her wishes, so it might as well be so.
Many thanks, ***** ***** will certainly rate your help highly. My issue was simply that my brother has made it very clear that he intends to offer no recompense now or in the future for my share of the property, and (regretfully) I wanted to know if I could lever him into having to discuss the issue and offer at least something by way of a financial settlement. My mother's solicitor had informed her that no sale order could be made while the property was his sole residence. May I take it then that this will not be the case subsequent to my mother's death?