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We are three owner occupied converted flats in one house,leasehold with one third share each of the freehold. Can one of the flats let his property without the permission of the other two co lessees and freeholders? Building converted into flats in 1982 and to date all three flats have been bought/sold as owner occupied . Lease forbids the carrying on of a trade in the flats-does letting out constitute a trade?
Clause 17 of my lease states "Not at any time to assign sub-let or part
with possession of part only of the demised premises and not during the last seven years of the term to underlet assign or part with the possession of the whole of the demised premises or any part thereof"
What exactly does this mean?Can my neighbour still let out his flat?