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Thank you Jo.
It is a housing association flat
No, no sharing..
Sorry Joshua, incorrect.
The tenant is the sole occupant of a flat allegedly "let" directly to him by a housing association. Point is, the tenant has lived there for over 30 years and the flat was let to him by a previous landlord. The whole block was later bulk-bought by the association, which never observed the formality of issuing him with a tenancy agreement. The landlord now wants to enforce various rights, such as access, under the terms of the agreement. Can the tenant successfully resist what has been a bullying approach?