I have a question regarding a Tomlin Order outlining somebody who is due to purchase our 50% share of land (stables) from us. However they are paying us with a bridging loan and then splitting the land and selling at a profit in order repay the bridging loan. Is this legal...there is no overage agreement to my knowledge. If the money is not paid to us by 30th June, she must provide us the property with vacant possession and allow us to sell on the open market as well as pay to us our costs of £116k
Also, if the only property she owns is currently 50% owned by me, will she need my consent to obtain a bridging loan that is secured?
Hi Thanks for keeping me informed. I have managed to make other arrangements regarding advice, so if you can cancel the question for me that would be appreciated. I assume I will receive a refund on my £13 charge also? Kind Regards ***** *****