The property was a public toilet/changing room, council owned then sold off freehold and has been used as a cafe/tea room ever since. There is a substantial portion of the property that the current owner lived in, unofficially, for the past 7 years. A family friend who works for an English council planning department told me that if I could prove the building had been used for residential purposes over the past 4 years then the council would have to grant the building residential status. I wanted to know if there is a similar provision under Scottish law? I currently operate the Cafe and am purchasing the property for that purpose but would be interested in getting residential or dual use status.