I have unfortuanetly just recently separated, I agreed to give proceeds of house to her(approx £45k) based on numbers available at the time in the agreement. This was included in the separation agreement but when we got to getting the final settlement figure the number had been miscalculated and was nearer £75k. My wife agreed verbally that I would get £10k of the difference and no need to go to lawyer, I believed and trusted her, conversation witnessed by daughter who acknowledged and agreed as the process was amicable.I was still paying all bills and mortgage until sale date. Once house sale completed and money moved into account. She stopped contacting me but sent letter telling me she had decided to give money to family. Under the Verbal Agreement laws I feel she has breached her end of the bargain when I have more than generous and fair. Do I have any rights?
thanks you for your response, if unable to answer, I can only assume that the subject is not easy or unlikely to be resolved.
If after a few days no one able to help, I would just respectfully XXXXX XXXXX not to follow up the on this any further.