Thank you for your reply.
I understand the scenario you described but could he claim to be " financially disadvantaged" by simply sharing the general household expenses ? if:-
(a) these expenses excluded any element of repaying the house loan from me.
(b)the general household expenses included the repayments of the house loan from me.
(c)In the event of my daughter ceasing work to start a family and her partner was the sole breadwinner would that constitute him being " financially disadvantaged" in the event of any separation.
How is the term "substantial contribution" defined in law ie would it include any or all of the positions outlined at (a) - (c) above.
Thanks for your response.
Finally, can I confirm from your previous answers, that If I gifted the full amount to my daughter for her to buy a house, in her own name, and there was no element of that money being repaid
there was no significant period whereby my daughter was not working ie being supported by him
there was no " substantial contribution " of the type you described above
the only contribution made by my daughter and her partner jointly was for other general house hold expenses/ maintenance/repairs etc that would normally be incurred in maintaining any property
it would be unlikely that he could claim that he had been "financially disadvantaged" in the event of any future separation.