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Hi, there is no Financial order from the court as such, there is only an written agreemen lodged by both parties' solicitor, that the ex matrimonial home to be sold as soon as reasonably practical at a mutually agreed selling price, once sold deducting the cost of sale & redemption of mortgage, any profit will be split equally. There is no mentioning of renting or a set timeline that the sale must be completed by.
My daughter and I live in rented accommodation in Glasgow. The ex matrimonial property is 40 miles east of Glasgow. It's been on the market for more than 2 years for a fixed price that's already 10% lower than market value but still no buyers. It didn't sell for 2 reasons: 1). There's not enough buyers looking in the area; 2). It hasn't been modernised and my ex partner refused to contribute any renovation cost as he wants to slash the price down by a further 20% which I refused. I'm not prepared to sell my house 30% lower than market value. In additiona, my child is in full time childcare which I pay 100%. The rental income would support this. Currently my ex partner contributes minimum maintenance required by CSA which is 80 pounds a month. My question would be: I would still want to sell the house in the near future at a reasonable price, however I'm planning to rent it out for 1 year to cover cost such as mortgage and council tax. If he does take me to court, will the court force the house sale at a lower than market price? Thank you.