I'm having a little difficulty in following your narrative but I think I have most of it. The general rule is that any property owned before marriage is no taken into account. However if that property is sold and then used to fund additional property after the marriage then that would be considered matrimonial property which has to be split equally. In addition to that you contributed to the property financially and physically so he couldn't argue that your income and efforts didn't contribute. I think you have an argument for 50:50 based on what you have said but also take the advice of your own solicitor who will have a fuller picture of your situation. I hope that helps. Please leave a positive rating so that I am credited for my time.