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Did you live in the house with him from the date of purchase? At that time had you planned to get married even if you weren't engaged at that time?
Matrimonial property is defined as property purchased after the marriage or in contemplation of marriage. It would appear from what you say that the house was bought in contemplation of marriage; you had discussed marriage and he bought the house in a place that you had a connection with. It's not black and white but the fact you did get married and lived in that house would be strong evidence that you would be entitled to a fair share of it. Happy to discuss further. I hope that helps. Please leave a positive rating so that I am credited for my time.
Yes it would. Your husband and the mortgage lender would have to agree.
That question would have to be answered with reference to what other assets that are in the marriage.. However if you are using the car for what it would be reasonable that you should continue to do so. It is not a question that can be answered in isolation, however.
No, not at all. You have occupancy rights in the house and have the right to stay there irrespective of ownership. He can't insist that you leave.
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