I dont understand.
If the original Timeshare was bought in 1995 for example. Was that contract changed by Spanish law in 1998 to 50 years maximum until the year 2048.
or are you saying that as my relative bought it from the first buyer in the year 2000 then the contract is for 50 years only, until the year 2050 and the property owner is bound by that
I believe the original contract was signed 'in perpetuity'.
That is my question.
Did Spanish law change it to 50 years in 1998?
We do not want the contract to be forever. We want to finish it as soon as the law allows.
Is my relative forced to keep it forever even if he no longer wants it?
This refers to the period when the contract was signed in 1995.
That was 20 years ago.
What rights are available now.
So you are saying my relative has to keep the Timeshare forever!
I understood the 1998 law required all preexisting contracts to be adapted to the 1998 law.
He can sell it out when he wants or if he does noy pay the fees they will seize the right and sell it out at court, .... So, try to sell it out or do not pay the fees That are the ways
Also you could contract an atorney to study your case
Did the 1998 law require preexisting contracts to be adapted to the 1998 law?
so did the adaptation law require the contract to be changed to 50 years maximum duration or not?
I asked about adaptation.
The 1998 law stated that preexisting contracts had to be adapted to the new law.
Did that mean the duration had to change or not.
The gisves the cahnce but it is not compulsory, one part has to demand it to the other, and if rejected, deemnaded at court It is not compulsory and forced to be done by law Thank you
Your relative has the chance to ask for the change but the change is not automaticaly done by law