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Just for clarification. I'm domiciled in France but not resident of France. I have my residence in the UK but i'm not ordinarily resident of the UK as I don't have any intention to stay in the UK. It also means that I don't have to declare anything in France.
If I stay 40% of my time in the UK, it means that I can ask for a refund of 60% of my income tax. is it correct? if yes what is the process to do it?
I have an offshore bank account and my salary will be paid to this account. However I will need to transfer some money to pay my rent from my offshore bank account to my local bank account. how does it concretely work?
Indeed for the last Tax year I spent 7 months in the UK. I asked PWC to do my tax return and claim for the 5 months I spent abroad. They told me that I won't be able to claim it as my salary was not paid to an offshore bank account. is it correct?
I understand what you advised me to do but it didn't answer my question.
I know that I'm UK resident and my question was more about the best option for me.
Is it better to ask for the OWR (Overseas Working Days Relief) or ask HMRC to pay the remittance charge basis of £30K?
FYI, I have the intention to keep the money outside the UK
Let's consider that my income tax is £100k (that will be the case) and I spend 50% of my time abroad:
If I go for the OWR model I can claim up to 50k. If I go for the RCB I can claim up to 70k.
is that correct?
if it is correct, it means that it is better for me to ask to pay the remittance basis instead of claiming the OWR.
I think we should cancel the question. It seems that it's a complex situation.
Thank you anyway for having tried.