Jo, thank you for your reply.
the property was not valued at the time of the transfer. The stipulation of the charge appears in a Land Registry document and in the terms of my decree absolute. But there were no figures attached to it at the time.
You will have to establish a fair valuation at the time of transfer. The Valuation Office should be able to help you with it unless you can establish the valuation from estate agents.
Beyond this - the issue of whether I am liable for CGT. How is it affected by my ownership of another property at the point that my old property is sold? If it is immaterial whether I am a homeowner or not, then I can make a choice about whether to buy on this basis. But if my homeowning status affects it, then I need to know.
If you live in a property as your main residence, then any gain from sale of it qualifies for private resisence relief and it is exempt from CGT. You can own more than one property at any one time, but you can only claim one property as main residence at a time and it is that property that qualifies for private residence relief.
If I had not divorced...and had continued to own the property with my spouse, and then we had sold and made a profit, we (and I) would not be liable for CGT? That's correct? So I am being disadvantaged by my divorced status and that this is no longer my primary home? Will my ex-spouse pay CGT when it is sold?
If you remained as a couple at any point in the tax year of sale then the gain would escape CGT. You could have sold the property within 3 years of leaving the marital home and still not pay any CGT.
More information on Separation, divorce and capital gains tax can be found here
If your ex spouse has lived in the property through the period of ownership then he would escape CGT as he would get private residence relief to cover any gain.I hope this is helpful and answers your question.