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hello, thank you for your opinion.
could you explain this better: "This not only depends on the nature of the goods supplied, but also on how the supply is made" ?
last question. following what you wrote. if I sell a service "ask me a question about the fruit juicer" supplied from ireland, like this website is doing and I give as a free gift to every customer that use that service one fruit juicer delivered at home from spain, in that case the fruit juiced would be a FREE and secondary add-on to the main "ask me a question" service supplied from Ireland. . in that case is the prohibition on doing this shipping still operating? thank you.
so the customer has to pay the vat on a free gift? but if it's free we suppose he doesn't have to pay any vat. vat on 0% value is 0%, it isn't ?
it seems you didn't understand the question. the service would be not free, as you wrongly wrote. free would be the good that we give as a gift to everybody who use our paid service.
I say, following what you have explained, that I offer this service:
"we ask to a question about the fruit juicer". that's the service that we offer.
it costs, for example, 30 euro + 23% irish vat.
for each customer that use this service (and pay for this service 30 euro+23%irish vat) we give a free gift for thanking you. the free gift is a fruit juicer that you receive from spain.
is in this case still operating the prohibition of doing that shipping of good (as a free gift) from spain to the customer in france?