Have Tax Questions? Ask a Tax Expert for Answers ASAP
Thanks for that - I don't understand why my husband would be liable for capital gains rather than me, because we are transferring his share to me and not my share to him.
Is it because he is effectively disposing of his share?
The property is now worth less than we bought it for, so does this mean that there will be no capital gains to pay if he were to transfer his share to me?