To answer some of your questions:
I am a UK citizen (taxpayer)
1. I believe it was EUR 76k
2. I received 37.5% of the proceeds of the sale price net of some fees (not sure what they correspond to). So property price was EUR 165k, fees 10k so net receipts = 155k. Amount received prior to other deductions was 37.5%*155k = EUR 58125, less deductions = 53789.36. However these percentages are backed out and do not necessarily correspond to the share of the property received
3. (see above)
4. Personally I did not pay for any improvements, but they were many done and were paid for by my parents. I'm not sure how this was accounted for in the disburtion.
5. I'm a higher rate taxpayer.
It sounds like you believe that some tax is due. My impression (as per my original email) is that given the transaction took place within the EU then tax paid in France meant that no tax should be due here. If this is mistaken then I'd like to understand why.
Thanks for your help,
Unfortunately that coincides with what I thought is likely to be the case but contrary to what others have been telling me. Your point about the French tax being claimed as a credit makes a lot of sense and helps me to understand the way double-taxation would be avoided.
Given at least one accountant has advised no tax is due it appears I need someone with specific expertise. Can you please clarify what expertise I should be looking for and whether there's a good (reputable, possibly local) place I can search for such an accountant? I'd be happy to seek your assistance but feel that there is probably more detail here than can be easily provided through this chat.
Thanks again for your help.