3a. is not sufficiently clear yet.
To be clear, there is no ownership share defined as such in the property registration documents as such, its simply in the joint names of myself and my father. So I would have assumed it will be 50/50 (which is what is assumed under Indian tax system).
Just want to make sure I understand your answer clearly. Are you saying in my case under UK Tax, I will be assumed to have 75% share in ownership of the property, since the invested 75% of the initial purchase price?
Thanks Tony. Last clarification, is on pt. 1, am I correct in saying that the seven year time window does not make any difference to the domicile, rest all being the same? i.e. If I sell the property in say 1 or 2 years time rather than now, after having lived in the UK for 8 or 9 years, I would still be domiciled in India ?