I am afraid this does not answer my question:
"Should XYZ plc be able to avoid tax on the unrealised gain in ABC Ltd and add the additional £150,000 paid for the shares to the asset's base cost?"
I need clarity on the purchaser's position in order to calculate whether I will obtain a better all in result by 1) selling him the property directly from ABC Ltd or 2) selling him the shares
I am afraid this still does not answer my question:
Please give an exposition of how XYZ plc might do this successfully. Or is the unrealised gain embedded without any means of offset when it comes to sell/transfer ownership ?
Thank you but I do understand that an unrealised gain does not give rise to tax. That was not my question.
Surely you can see that the whole point of my question is to anticipate the position when a gain does have to be realised.
So please advise on how to avoid tax on the uplift from £450k to £600k when this situation arises - within either ABC or XYZ. (Clearly, I will already have attracted personal CGT on this difference when selling the shares).