I have a family law question re our family home.

Please see my first qustion, this is not a question...the site closed my question and posted this one by mistake.

this was my question:Hi – question re our former family home.Facts:- House was in fathers’ name- House was bought in 1985 and mother + two children lived in it up to 1994
- Father never lived in the house (moved to Nigeria in 1986)
- Father and Mother officially divorced in 1990 (father continued to pay mortgage)
-Mother subsequently moved to Germany in 1994 and children were at university and boarding school (19 & 12 years of age)
- House was rented out or was empty from 1994 to 2015 (empty about half the time)
- Up to 2007, mortgage was paid by father or from rental income
- Son paid mortgage and council tax from 2008-2015 (house was empty during this time)
- House was sold by son mid-2015 (son had full PoA over the house)
- Son wishes to give 50% of the funds to father and 50% to mother (after deducting amounts paid for mortgage and council tax between 2008-2015)
- Father says mother entitled to nothing
- Mother currently lives in Germany, father in Nigeria (son and daughter in UK)Question - under UK family law (parents married in UK/London), what is the mother entitled to re share of the proceeds from selling the house?Many thanks
(I am the son btw)