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Clare, Family Solicitor
Category: Family Law
Satisfied Customers: 35091
Experience:  I have been a solicitor in High Street Practise since 1985 and have specialised in Family Law for the last 10 years
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I am tenant in common with my partner on my property deeds

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I am tenant in common with my partner on my property deeds bought in 2001 with a 25 % share. One year later we married. If we now divorce him in 2016, am I entitled to more than 25% share as we are married?
Does the house become part of our total assets to be divided, or remain at 75/25% shares?
Thank you for a clear answer

Thank you for your question

My name is ***** ***** I shall do my best to help you

The house is part of the total assets for division regardless of the original agreement.

The Divorce Court has the power to distribute the equity in any way it considers fair should you not be able to negotiate an agreement between you

I hope that this is of assistance - please ask if you need further details

Customer: replied 1 year ago.
Thank you. So regardless of what is on the deeds prior to marriage,at divorce all assets , house, pensions, savings , are considered as on being pot to be divided?

To an extent yes.

If there are assets that predate the marriage and which have always been kept separate AND there are sufficient other assets to meet the reasonable needs of the other spouse then they may be excluded.

Clare and other Family Law Specialists are ready to help you
Customer: replied 1 year ago.
Thank you. Great response

You are most welcome I hope all goes well