The charges against the former matrimonial home are only equitable charges against her share of the property (a legal charge would be against their joint share) unless he agreed and signed the documentation for the loans or whatever else it is that the subject of the charge.
The court does not apportion blame when it comes to dividing marital finances so it doesn’t matter who divorce is who or why, the financial split up is the same.
In respect of domestic violence and abuse, that just comes under unreasonable behaviour.
However if they have lived apart for 5 years or more people get divorced whether she likes it or not.
The divorce issue and the financial issue are completely separate. You can’t get a financial order without going through the divorce process but you can get divorced without going through the financial process. Children of course are an ongoing thing regardless of whether the couple get divorced or not.
I don’t know what you mean when you say that she is refusing because he can divorce her and she can't do anything about it.
If he doesn’t know where she is, he can ask the court to dispense with service of documents and if he does know where she is but she is refusing to sign the papers, he can ask the court to have the papers deemed served and the divorce process goes ahead regardless.
Here is the government page on a missing spouse https://www.gov.uk/divorce-missing-husband-wife
and here is the government guide on divorce is in general: https://www.gov.uk/divorce
and a little on spouse ignoring the divorce petition (I couldn’t find the government webpages on this) http://www.lawpack.co.uk/separation-and-divorce/articles/article8297.asp
Can I clarify anything else for you?
I am happy to answer any specific points arising from this.
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