Hello, I have reviewed this today. Firstly, whether or not you had representation is irrelevant to the making of the order.
Again, I have to repeat the earlier point, that the court had to also feel the order was fair in the circumstances at the time, and a judge had to sign off on it, and as such there aren't grounds to overturn the whole thing, in my view. Setting aside this kind of order only succeeds in the rarest of cases, and only normally where there has been serious financial fraud for example.
You could arguably have enforced the order at any point when he refused to accept reasonable offers - the court could have overruled him white easily on that issue had you made that application.
Conduct has been poor, arguably on both sides according to your narrative, so perhaps tread carefully.
But you have good arguments to make in respect of both points 4 and 5. I would anticipate that conveyancing costs would be split equally in respect of point 2.
I hope that this answers your question.