The starting point is that matrimonial properties are treated as jointly owned. This means therefore that any assets at the time of the divorce is divided equally between the parties, unless of course, reason can be shown for things to be dealt with differently. This is also the position even if the asset is solely in the name of one of the parties. So for example in your case, the house being solely in your name.
Now the issue with this property is that although there is an agreement for sale, the property has not in effect been transferred because the registration has not yet been done. This really can be viewed in two ways. The first is that you are holding the property on trust for the family member or that the sale is yet to be completed.
If the sale has been completed, and you are deemed to be holding the property on trust for the family member, she could ask for a percentage of the amount you would have sold the property for. She would have in effect been entitled to a share in that. On the alternative position she could argue that she is entitled to a share in the current value of the property. The other argument which she may raise is that your assertion that the property was sold to a family member is all part of a ploy by you to avoid her being able to make a claim in relation to the property.
The above are all considerations. i cannot say definitively how the court will rule as it depends largely on the evidence that is presented.
You may want to also enquire from a lawyer in Jordan as to whether an order made by a UK court in relation to the property can be enforced in Jordan. I do not know whether there is any issue with respect to the jurisdiction of the court in the UK.