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Category: Family Law
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My wife and I have been married 6 years, we both 3 years ago

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my wife and I have been married 6 years, we both 3 years ago bought a house together, were now divorcing, will my large Lum,p sum be ring fenced as a pre-marital assets
Good evening and thank you for your question. I'm a solicitor specialising in divorce, separation and financial matters so I'd be happy to offer some guidance. First and foremost, please would you confirm if you have any children? How much of a lump sum did you have prior to the marriage? Thanks, J
Customer: replied 20 days ago.
no children, 500,000, wife 200,000 - I was convinced to pool the money together to buy a house 3 years ago, both monies were pre-marriage
Hello again and thanks for the update. The starting point for any financial division is 50:50 (known as the "yardstick of equality"). This is modified by a variety of factors including dependent children, the length of the marriage, respective ages, health, income differentials, pension provision, peio living standard and contributions to the marriage.The marriage is comparatively short but it's not so short as to take out what you put in. Arguably, the house is joint and the intention was to share. I'm afraid I could see your wife driving a hard bargain if you wanted to sell or buy her out. If so, you'd be faced with the prospect of a court application which could be costly. That said, I could equally see a judge determining that a lot of the assets were acquired pre-marriage so I could imagine you'd retain a significant proportion of your lump sum.
Good evening. I see that you didn't reply to my last answer on 7 September so I trust you are satisfied with the responses. If you need any further assistance, please let me know. Kind regards, J
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Customer: replied 17 days ago.
thank you