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If drugs are alleged to be an issue, the judge is likely to order drug testing, unless there are compelling reasons why the judge does not think it relevant.
One would expect this to be right at the beginning of proceedings if drugs are a real concern. Someone raising them halfway through proceedings or at the end would probably be thought to be raising them to be malicious rather than out of actual concern. The test would take place as soon after the judge ordered it as it could be arranged.
Can I clarify anything for you?
Would the person being accused deny using drugs or object to testing?
Why would they object?
My question is 'why would they object to doing testing?'
The point here is that if they are not a drug user, taking a test is a simple way of proving that. Refusing to take a test will simply mean the judge can infer from that refusal (i.e. believe the person is using drugs) and therefore make an order for drug testing.
Kindly note that for me to give accurate answers, I need answers to the questions I ask.
The allegation, plus a refusal to undergo testing, can be enough.
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