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Jo C.
Jo C., Barrister
Category: Law
Satisfied Customers: 32086
Experience:  Over 5 years in practice
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Could you please tell me the meaning of this I give devise

Customer Question

Could you please tell me the meaning of this
I give devise and bequeath the residue of my estate both real and personnel whatsoever and wheresoever to my trustees upon trust that they shall sell call in and convert the same onto money and after payment the out of my just funeral and testamentary expenses and all tax duty which may be levied upon any part of my estate on or by reason of my death to hold the net proceeds of sale upon trust to my said daughter(me) and son in equal shares absolutely provided that if either my said son or my said daughter shall have died during my lifetime leaving issue living at my death such issue shall take substitution and if more than one in equal shares per stripes the share of my estate which my said daughter or said sob would have taken had he or she survived me
My passed away on Sunday the house was joint owned between my brother and me the solicitor told me my mum had shared her half between me and my brother he tells the house automatically goes to him not what the will states is this true.
Submitted: 4 years ago.
Category: Law
Expert:  James Mather replied 4 years ago.
Thank you for your question here on Just answer. It is my pleasure to try and assist you with this today. Please bear with me if I need to ask for any further information from you in order for me to be able to advise you fully. My name is Law Denning and I am a practising solicitor. I have been an expert on this website in UK law since 2008. During that time, as you appreciate, I have answered thousands of questions from satisfied users on a variety of subjects.
Because we are all in practice with clients and court and other users, I might not always respond in minutes, particularly evenings and weekends. Please bear with me in that case. I will be online and off-line all day most weekdays and weekends.

Why does he claim that it automatically goes to him?
Customer: replied 4 years ago.

He says because he owns half mums half automatically goes to him and the will is not always correct it can be void.

before my mums death she did tell me she had left me a share and I had to take it as she stated he has had enough out of me.

he also said he can't afford to give a share as he has not worked for years but I know he has a quite a few thousand in the bank as he lived on my mum he never gave her a penny towards anything so I know how he stashed up so much money

Customer: replied 4 years ago.
I was told I would get a reply in 15 mins that was almost a hour ago
Customer: replied 4 years ago.
Because he he is a joint owner and it automatically goes to him not what the will says