We were married between 1999 and oct 2009 when the absolute went through on the basis of her unreasonable behaviour which she agreed to.
Since then I have initially lived in rented then I thought I had a buyer for the marital home in 2010 so she moved out. This sale fell through and I had to move back in during Feb 2010, as I was the only one contributing to the mortgage and have for the last four years. The property has now recovered enough value to clear the mortgage just so I can sort the financials out hence question.
I have two boys aged 10 and 7 who I see every Wednesday after school till 7 pm and every other weekend they stay with me from Friday evening until Sunday evening around 7. I also have them for weeks at a time during school holidays.
I run my own limited business which I am the sole director off and take an income of £22k from roughly per annum. I have approx. 30k of debt which includes 2 ccjs, one which is joint with the ex for £1500 and another for £10k. I also have several other unsecured debts totalling approximately £20k that I pay a £1 per month to as well as the mortgage. I do not know what she earns but I do know she is in rented and is working more than 3 days a week but not sure how many hours. I believe she gets help with rent etc on top of tax credits.
I do not have much money left to afford much in the way of solicitors bills when I hear that they can be thousands. I think she was hoping that the sale of the house would net enough money to pay the mortgage, sale costs, her part of the ccj and the solicitors bills.
Having now had 3 valuations the house is worth around the £165k mark and the mortgage is at £163k.
Look forward to your thoughts.