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Might not the court think there is a disparity in assets, and I must (somehow) give her half the value of my shares? Thats where I'm coming from with the forced sale thought.
The shares were given to me by my father - I have worked in the company since 1979 - at some point he decided he should share them out among myself sister and brother, as well as he and my mother continuing to hold some. What I can't recall is whether this redistribution preceded my marriage in 1988 or not.
I would be very grateful if you could send any further replies/questions to my own email, [email protected] the other wone is he work one & I don't really want everyone knowing about this kind of thing.
You are asking me on what basis could a sale be forced. Why? I have not raised that question, and even if I have by implication, should not the answer come from you? What I am asking is (a) does she have a right to half the shares I own; if yes where would the money come from to buy her out, given that (i) I don;t have any and (ii) minority shareholdings in private companies are illiquid and (b) given that my pension is non-contributory - small companies dump surplus cash in pension schemes for tax reasons mainly - is that a matrimonial asset which she is entitled to half of?
Or is your point rhetorical, that there is no basis on which a sale could be forced?
May I ask again that alerts about your reply are sent to my private email, [email protected]