How JustAnswer Works:
  • Ask an Expert
    Experts are full of valuable knowledge and are ready to help with any question. Credentials confirmed by a Fortune 500 verification firm.
  • Get a Professional Answer
    Via email, text message, or notification as you wait on our site. Ask follow up questions if you need to.
  • 100% Satisfaction Guarantee
    Rate the answer you receive.
Ask UKSolicitorJA Your Own Question
UKSolicitorJA, Solicitor
Category: Law
Satisfied Customers: 4312
Experience:  English solicitor with over 12 years experience
Type Your Law Question Here...
UKSolicitorJA is online now

hello. married a spanish woman in 1989. she died of a brain

This answer was rated:

hello. married a spanish woman in 1989. she died of a brain tumour in 2009. she, and her brothers, own a small plot of land in spain which they would like to sell. unsure whether spanish or english law applies - please advise. she worked here as a pharmacist for nearly 20 years. she kept her spanish passport. regardless of which system applies the outcome will be that same as any monies received will go to her children.

Spanish law will apply as the land is in Spain.

May I help further?
UKSolicitorJA and other Law Specialists are ready to help you
Customer: replied 3 years ago.

why does english law rather than spanish law prevail?

Because the property is in Spain.