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If a service contract is signed by one party (myself) and the other party (service provider) never counter-signed the contract (I never received a counter-signed copy), is the contract still binding?
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Have you been receiving the services please?
We never used the services (because the services were no longer required). There were 3 part services with 3 installment payments. I paid the 1st installment, but did not use the service.
Did you know there were several payments to be made please?
Yes I was aware of the the 3 installments in the contract, I signed the contract. But I never received a counter-signed contract.
Ok - sadly then the contract is not void.
Contracts can be oral or they can be written
This means that if you had not signed, not paid and nothing had been done then you could argue there is no contract.
But as you knew of the existence of a written contract and you reinforced this by making a paying, this indicates that there is a contract in place - even if oral.
Therefore there is an oral contract in place.
I am sorry if this is not the answer you are looking for and certainly not the one I want to give you, but I have a duty to be honest
Thank you for the clarification.
Can I clarify anything for you about this today please?
No this is clear to me.
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