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Jo C.
Jo C., Barrister
Category: Law
Satisfied Customers: 71031
Experience:  Over 5 years in practice
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, I read somewhere that...

Customer Question

I read somewhere that if you don't bill someone within a year of providing a service the bills becomes void. Is this true?
Submitted: 2 years ago.
Category: Law
Expert:  Jo C. replied 2 years ago.
Thank you for your question. My name is ***** ***** I will try to help with this.
No, I am sorry.
The only time is limit is that of suing which is 6 years from the date of the wrongful act under the Limitation Act 1980.
Even if a person is never billed at all it still wouldn't mean the money is not due.
Can I clarify anything for you?