Hello again, you helped me back in June. The problem continues.
He is thretening me that the morgage has been payd from his account. We don't have a rental agreement. He lives there and instead of rent pays the mortgage.
He tells me that he can proof in the court and I have nothing to say...
He tells me that nothing in the house belongs to me...
The mortgage is on my name solely. I used to live in the house for few years, then moved to London because of work.
As I am a house owner I cannot get any cheaper accommodation in London. In order to get cheaper accommodation in London, I need to put house on sell.
If we did not have any agreement for him paying rent and he pays for the mortgage, which is for him to live in the house (as if he paid a rent), is he right to threaten me that this is him who pays the mortgage, therefore the court will take his side?
Additionally, we did buy a lot of things together or i bought them myself, is he right that "nothing in the house is mine"?