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JGM, Solicitor
Category: Law
Satisfied Customers: 12183
Experience:  30 years as a practising solicitor.
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It would normally be in the one Writ. The reason the

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39;....It would normally be in the one Writ. The reason the employer could be liable is that under Scots law an employer can be found vicariously liable for the negligent actings of its employee acting in the course of employment. So it's the same as a personal injury sustained at work: the employer can be liable if the employee caused injury to another person.'
In one writ, should I ask for separate amounts of compensation from each party then? or how should I do that?
The employer even took the defamatory statements and sacked me, after agreeing with them. Said it was gross misconduct. But now they wish to talk to me...meetings and so on as they know it was all wrong. It is 4 months since I lost everything and I am living on crisis money

No it is the one crave for the one sum of money against both employer and employee. You have to make averments of what the employee did that was defamatory and also say that the employer was vicariously liable for the actions of the employee.

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Customer: replied 1 year ago.
thank you. I am not at that stage yet, but am looking ahead and try to be informed if it gets to that stage.