Thank you. We are getting there.
So the net proceeds of the house were GBP65,000 After the mortgage was repaid. You had paid money into the house which, presumably you can prove and must have been for improvements or suchlike and that reduced the share also because you would be entitled to be repaid that first. So she ends up with GBP42,000.
That is straightforward enough. She may have got a small amount of interest over the few years it was on deposit and she didn’t spend any of it but the amount is going to be so small as to hardly worth arguing over.
It would be a case of putting those mathematics down on paper for her showing exactly what was spent where and why even though the house sold for GBP300,000, you had paid for repairs and there was a mortgage which also had to be repaid meaning that she only got GBP42,000.
Depending on the mortgage was the one you took over from your grandmother or whether it was a mortgage that you took out, you would have to prove, in the latter case, how that money was spent on the house and you would have to have something to show for that amount of mortgage.
Sofar it’s a mathematical issue.
It appears that in the interim she went on a spending spree and you paid all the loans. Once again, that’s a mathematical issue which you need to put down to the nth degree.
It really is a mathematical exercise here but you need to be completely crystal-clear with everything that has come in everything that has gone out and everything that you have spent because in this dialogue between us it has been far from clear.
I cannot see any criminal issue here.
If you don’t have a house and you cannot pay whatever money she is asking for, whether that is being asked for as a result of a judgement or just her demands or solicitors letters, and you ultimately go bankrupt, it would obviously affect your credit history for at least five years but would only be problematical asset wise if you have a house because you could lose that.
It’s unlikely you would get a lawyer to deal with this on a no win no fee basis because if they win, there is nothing in it for them.
With respect, what this has to do with the family is irrelevant. She is entitled to whatever money she is entitled to. As I said, at this stage, it’s a mathematical exercise not a legal one.
Can I clarify anything else for you?
I am happy to answer any specific points arising from this.
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