This would be classed as a 14 year relationship.
The fact that the property may be in your name only makes no difference. The financial settlements going to be exactly the same in the event of divorce regardless of whose name is ***** *****
I’m sorry to say that after 14 years it’s highly likely that this property has become marital assets and whilst he has certainly got a claim and a large chunk of the marital home (probably 50% with no children) he will have a substantial claim and the other property even though you had it before you got married.
Whilst the old wedding vow, “with all my worldly goods I thee endow” doesn’t always work in law, it sometimes can and you are going to be partway there.
By the same token of course you have the same interest in the property that he rents so you could probably offset one against the other.
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I am happy to answer any specific points arising from this.
Please be aware that my answer is based strictly upon the information you have given me.
If you still need any points clarifying, I will be happy to reply because the thread does not close. In fact, it remains open indefinitely.
I am always happy to answer any further questions you have on any new thread in which case, please start your question with, “ For FES only”.
That only applies to new threads, not this one. You have me exclusively on this one.