It really depends on whether your husband knew what he was doing when he signed the house over because if he didn’t, then it’s possible to have the transfer set aside. If you wish to do that, you would just need some evidence to prove this on the balance of probabilities and it’s highly likely that if the consultant gave an opinion that your husband had had dementia for three years, it would tip the balance that he had rather than have not at the time of the transfer.
There is another issue here and even assuming that your husband had, time, for mental capacity, why do the transfer what I presume is the matrimonial home, to your daughter?
If he did it to avoid you getting your hands on it, either when he died or in the event of divorce, you could always apply to have the transfer set aside on the basis that he only did it to disadvantage you. If your husband has died then your claim would be under the Inheritance Provision for Family & Dependents Act or if he has not died and is still alive, then it would be part of a divorce settlement.
Thank you for letting me assist you with your legal question. I am glad that I was able to help.
I am not certain whether that answers the question for you or not, but I am happy to answer any specific points arising from this.
It will be my pleasure to help you again either further with this or any future questions you have