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I would not expect any residual sperm to remain from a prior ejaculation if you urinated in between ejaculations. So there should not be any sperm in the pre-ejaculate in this scenario.
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Just spoke to a doctor from webmd and they said that pre-ejaculatory fluid can cause pregnancy. If the morning after pill is taken and no ejaculation occurs does this lower the risk at least? It seems that there is some debate in the medical community regarding the issue of pre-ejaculatory fluid? If I urinated many many times prior to ejaculation that there should not be any issue at all correct?
Does her not having periods since june have anything to do with a lowered risk as well?