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UKSolicitorJA, Solicitor
Category: Property Law
Satisfied Customers: 4312
Experience:  English solicitor with over 12 years experience
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I have own (leasehold) a flat which and the use clause within

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I have own (leasehold) a flat which and the use clause within the leasehold agreement states “to use the Flat exclusively as a private dwelling in one family occupation”.

What is legal definition of one family occupation and if this was sublet as a single Assured Shorthold lease would this breach this clause?

It means only one family (as opposed to two or more families) may occupy the flat, so it the assured shorthold tenancy only permitted one family to occupy the premises, that would be fine.

Can I help further?

Customer: replied 3 years ago.
Many thanks for your advice and to clarify, if the tenants are not related but act as one family that would sufficient. (They would be friends)?
Friends would fall into more than one family I am afraid.

All the best
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