Thanks for your question. I will try to help.
If you had a mortgage then the properties would have been in your joint names.
At the time that you owned the properties with him unless there is a declaration of trust (for which you must hold your property as tenants in common) then there is a presumption that each party retains a 50% interest in the equity in the property.
However, transferring the properties to him was not a tactically smart thing to do if you did not also execute an agreement or declaration stating that you retained as specific percentage interest in the property.
It is possible to seek to claim an interest in the property without being named on the title or without an agreement in place by litigating under the Trusts of Land and Appointment of Trustees Act if you can show that you have the basis of a claim (eg usually as a result of financial contribution to the purchase or maintaining mortgage payments over a period of time), but this is a very specialised area of law and the legal fees are very expensive.
If you wished to pursue the matter, then you would have to have consultation with a property litigation solicitor first to give your full detailed instructions over a one hour meeting and then ask for their opinion on the merits of issuing proceedings. It doesn’t sound great at the moment though unfortunately.
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