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I know someone who abandoned their rented( housing association )flat. Then their son moved in 6 months later, and a year after that purchased the property using one of the right to buy schemes, I know this because the flat was sold for £29.500 which wouldn't be possible without the scheme. It is my understanding that the mother would have had to have been living there prior during and after the sale of the property but was not!. Am I correct that these people should not be living there? What can I do about it?
I live in a housing association property as well, does this mean I can abandon my property for 6 months then assign it to whoever I want?
without that person having actually lived with me at the address, and without me having actually lived at the address for 6 months?
somethings not right here.